My impression on Bourdieu’s Distinction by far is that his radical social theory of class differentiation does not leave any room for subjective position for the deepest objectification of “the nature of the game”. Thus for him, cultural capital which was assumed to be derived from the most subjective (but disinterested) taste – Kantian aesthetic judgment – is not just a result of pure independent faculty of human but the very effect of the accumulation of academic and family capital. But how could this educational and familial capital have been transmitted to cultural capital? There seems to be a vicious circle, not to mention disappearance of agency. If the distribution of cultural capital is already established and determined by the distribution of wealth (economic capital) and other accompanying capitals, how can classified distinctions of taste survive in historical changes where capital itself is circulating?